Showing posts with label Questions. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Questions. Show all posts

Water Supply Engineering Questions (W6)

In this post, I will share some important questions which are frequently asked in competitive examinations such as SSC, UPSC and state PSCs.




  1. Priming of a centrifugal pump is necessary...


    1. If it is located above reservior level
    2. If it is located below reservior level
    3. If it is located at reservior level
    4. If delivery head is high

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  2. The pipe joint commonly used in puming station is


    1. flexible joint
    2. expansion joint
    3. flanged joint
    4. socket and spigot joint

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  3. If the diameter of the main pipe is taken less than economical diameter then ...


    1. head loss will be high
    2. cost of pipe will be high
    3. cost of pumping will be more
    4. all of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  4. As per IS:10500-2012, the acceptable limit of pH of Drinking water is ...


    1. 6.5-8.5
    2. 6.0-8.0
    3. 7.0-7.5
    4. 6.0-7.0

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  5. As per IS:10500-2012, what are the acceptable limit and permissible limit of "Floride" in Driking water in mg/l?


    1. 1.5 and 1.0 respectively
    2. 1.0 and 1.5 respectively
    3. 1.0 and 1.0 respectively
    4. 1.5 and 1.5 respectively

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  6. As per IS:10500-2012, the permissible limit of "Nitrate" in mg/l is ...


    1. zero
    2. 45
    3. 0.45
    4. 4.5

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  7. As per IS:10500-200, the permissible limit of total hardness as $CaCO_3$ in mg/l is ...


    1. 200
    2. 400
    3. 600
    4. 800

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  8. The disease "Meathaemoglobinaemia" is caused when drinking water supply contains high concentrations of...


    1. Fluoride
    2. Iron
    3. Nitrite
    4. Nitrate

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  9. The micro-organism group E-coli is used as an indicator of faecal contamination of water because ...


    1. E-Coli is a known pathogen
    2. it is very easy to detect
    3. they are discharged along with faeces in large numbers
    4. all of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  10. Pathogenic organisms may be found in contaminated waters and are responsible for diseases like ...


    1. typhoid fever
    2. infectious hepatitis
    3. gastro enteritis
    4. all of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: d






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Water Supply Engineering Questions (W5)

In this post, I will share some important questions which are frequently asked in competitive examinations such as SSC, UPSC and state PSCs.




  1. The joint on cast iron pipes for water supply are generally


    1. flanged
    2. welded
    3. spigot and socket (turned and bored)
    4. spigot and socket (lead)

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  2. The valve, which allows the flow only in one direction, is a:


    1. reflux valve
    2. sluice valve
    3. gate valve
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  3. The valve, which is provided in the water distribution pipes at street corners and pipe junctions to control the flow in the distribution system, is:


    1. an air valve
    2. a sluice valve
    3. a scour valve
    4. a reflux valve

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  4. A check valve is also known as a:


    1. relief valve
    2. reflux valve
    3. blow off valve
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  5. A sluice valve is also known as:


    1. air-inlet valve
    2. scour valve
    3. gate valve
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  6. Pressure relief valves installed along water mains maybe provided for relieving:


    1. air pressure
    2. water hammer pressure
    3. ice pressure
    4. all of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  7. Anchorages in water pipelines are provided:


    1. at all bends
    2. at all steep slopes
    3. at other points of unbalanced pressure
    4. all of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  8. Scour valves are provided:


    1. at the street corners to control the flow
    2. at the dead ends to drain out the wastewater
    3. at every summit of the rising main
    4. at the foot of the rising main along the slope, to prevent back running of water

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  9. A blow-off valve is provided in a water distribution system, at:


    1. low points
    2. high points
    3. junction points
    4. all of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  10. Summits are the point of:


    1. high pressures
    2. low pressures
    3. equal pressures
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b






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Water Supply Engineering Questions (W4)

In this post, I will share some important questions which are frequently asked in competitive examinations such as SSC, UPSC and state PSCs.





  1. The internal pressure, to which a water supply pipe is subjected to, is:


    1. full hydrostatic pressure when water in the pipe is at rest
    2. pressure head and velocity head in the pipe, when flow at full velocity is taking place
    3. (a) + water hammer pressure
    4. (b) + water hammer pressure

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    The maximum internal pressure likely to come under worst circumstances is usually taken equal to the sum of full static pressure and the water hammer pressure.

  2. The hoop tension, needing steel reinforcement along the circumference of a water supply conduit, is caused by:


    1. internal pressure due to water in the pipe
    2. water hammer pressure
    3. pressure due to tafficload
    4. both (a) and (b)

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  3. Pick up the incorrect statement.


    1. water hammer pressure is caused by opening and closing of gates, valves, pumps, etc. situated along a water main
    2. water hammer pressure is caused only momentarily
    3. the greater the haste with which a gate valve is opened or closed on a water main, the greater will be the water hammer pressure developed
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  4. Water hammer pressures can be reduced by using:


    1. fast closing valves
    2. slow closing valves
    3. critically closing time valves
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  5. The water supply mains, normally need meticulous design, to withstand:


    1. compressive stresses
    2. tensile stresses
    3. flexural stresses
    4. all of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  6. The maximum pressure, which a pipe can withstand without any leakage, during hydrostatic pressure test, is called the:


    1. working pressure
    2. test pressure
    3. design pressure
    4. hydrostatic pressure

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  7. The commonly used material for water mains, which is strong, non corrodable, very durable but heavy and brittle is:


    1. RCC
    2. Steel
    3. copper
    4. cast iron

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  8. As compared to the cast iron pipes, steel water pipes are:


    1. heavier
    2. stronger
    3. durable
    4. all of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  9. Steel pipes are:


    1. easily affected by acidic and alkaline atmosphere effects
    2. unable to withstand high negative pressures
    3. liable to quick rusting
    4. all of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  10. Cast iron pipes, which are cast in horizontal position by ordinary sand moulding process, are called:


    1. Pit cast pipes
    2. Delavaud pipes
    3. Sand spun pipes
    4. Mcwane pipes

    View Answer
    Answer: b






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Water Supply Engineering Questions (W3)

In this post, I will share some important questions which are frequently asked in competitive examinations such as SSC, UPSC and state PSCs.





  1. The devices, which are installed for drawing water from different water sources, are called:


    1. Filters
    2. Intakes
    3. Outlets
    4. Inlets

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  2. Pick up the incorrect statement.


    1. The intake point should, as far as possible, be located in deep waters
    2. The intake point should be located upstream of the point of sewage disposal
    3. The intake point on the meandering rivers, should preferably be located on the convex banks
    4. None of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    The intake point on the meandering rivers, should preferably be located on the concave banks

  3. Simple submerged intakes may be suitable to:


    1. large water supply projects on rivers
    2. small water supply projects on streams
    3. small water supply projects on lakes
    4. both (b) and (c)

    View Answer
    Answer: d
    Small submerged intakes are used for small water supply projects drawing water from streams or lakes having relatively little change in water surface elevation throughout the year.

  4. Dry intake towers, when compared to wet intake towers, need:


    1. heavier and costly construction
    2. lighter and cheaper construction
    3. practically the same section

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  5. Pick up the incorrect statement.


    1. dry intake towers are preferred to wet intake towers
    2. wet intake towers help in withdrawing water from different levels of a storage reservoir
    3. a medium sized river intake well can preferably be adopted, when the water is withdrawn from the upstream of a barrage
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  6. Pressure pipes are exclusively used for carrying water supplies, because:


    1. such pipes are closed, and hence not exposed to pollution anywhere, enroute
    2. since the water runs under pressure in these pipes, pollution from outside surrounding cannot find entry, even if some joits are loose
    3. such pipes can go up and down the hills and valleys, thus requiring lesser length
    4. all of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  7. The velocity in water conduit is normally kept between:


    1. 0.5 and 1.0 m/s
    2. 0.8 and 1.2 m/s
    3. 0.9 and 1.5 m/s
    4. 1.0 and 1.5 m/s

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  8. Which of the following formula is most appropriate to design pressure pipes?


    1. Darcy Weisbach formula
    2. Manning's formula
    3. Chezy's formula
    4. Dupit's formula

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  9. In the design of water supply conduits, the larger value of the design velocity, if adopted will:


    1. reduce the cost of the pipe
    2. increase the cost of pumping
    3. both (a) and (b)
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  10. The appropriate diameter of a water main for supplying $9 MLD$ of water with a velocity of $1.5 m/s$, is:


    1. 0.3 m
    2. 0.6 m
    3. 0.9 m
    4. 1.0 m

    View Answer
    Answer: a
    $9 MLD=9000 {m^3}/day = \frac{9000}{24 \times 3600}$
    $=0.104167 {m^3/sec}$
    $Volume = Area \times velocity$
    $0.104167 = \pi \times radius^2 \times 1.5$
    $radius = 0.15 m$
    $diameter = 0.3 m$






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Water Supply Engineering Questions (W2)

In this post, I will share some important questions which are frequently asked in competitive examinations such as SSC, UPSC and state PSCs.





  1. Design period for the distribution system of a water scheme is ...


    1. 10 years
    2. 15 years
    3. 25 years
    4. 30 years

    View Answer
    Answer: d
    As per GOI manual on water supply,


  2. As compared to the geometrical increase method of forecasting population, the arithmetical increase method gives:


    1. lesser value
    2. higher value
    3. equal value
    4. may vary, as it may depend on the population figures

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  3. The suitable method for forecasting population for a young and a rapidly growing city is:


    1. arithmetic mean method
    2. geometric mean method
    3. comparative graphical method
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  4. The suitable method for forecasting population for an old developed large city is:


    1. arithmetic mean method
    2. geometric mean method
    3. comparative graphical method
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  5. Which of the following represents the growth of the population curve?


    1. semi-log curve
    2. straight line curve
    3. logistic curve
    4. exponential curve

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  6. The per capita consumption of a locality is affected by:


    1. climate condition
    2. quality of water
    3. distribution pressure
    4. all of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  7. Factor affecting, prediction of the future population of a city is


    1. births
    2. deaths
    3. migrations
    4. all of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  8. Water demand for public use as compared to total demand, kept in the design of water works for a city is


    1. 5 %
    2. 10 %
    3. 15 %
    4. 20 %

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  9. Which source of water, among the following, is not a surface source?


    1. river
    2. well
    3. lake
    4. ocean

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  10. The average annual rainfall of a country is a figure, which is averaged over a period of:


    1. 10 years
    2. 15 years
    3. 35 years
    4. 100 years

    View Answer
    Answer: c






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Water Supply Engineering Questions (W1)

In this post, I will share some important questions which are frequently asked in competitive examinations such as SSC, UPSC and state PSCs.





  1. Per Capita water demand is the average value over a period of ...


    1. 1 day
    2. 1 week
    3. 1 month
    4. 1 year

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  2. Which of the following practices causes a reduction in the per capita water consumption?


    1. Hotter Climate
    2. Modern Life
    3. Metered connection
    4. Good quality of water

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  3. As per IS 1172-1993, what is the minimum domestic water consumption for town and cities with full flushing system?


    1. 200 L/H/D
    2. 155 L/H/D
    3. 135 L/H/D
    4. 100 L/H/D

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  4. As per IS 1172-1993, what is the minimum domestic water consumption for small Indian town and cities?


    1. 200 L/H/D
    2. 155 L/H/D
    3. 135 L/H/D
    4. 100 L/H/D

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  5. Which of the following industries required a maximum quantity of water to produce one unit?


    1. Automobiles
    2. Paper
    3. Fertilizer
    4. Sugar

    View Answer
    Answer: b

    S No. Name of the Industry
    Unit of production
    or raw material used
    Approx.Quantity of
    water required per
    unit of production/
    raw material in KL
    1 Automobiles Vehicles 40
    2 Distillery (Alcohol) KL 122-170
    3 Fertilizer Tonne 80-200
    4 Leather (Tanned) Tonne 40
    5 Paper Tonne 200-400
    6 Special Quality Paper Tonne 400-1000
    7 Straw board Tonne 75-100
    8 Petroleum Refinery Tonne (Crude) 1-2
    9 Steel Tonne 200-250
    10 Sugar Tonne (Crude cane) 1-2
    11 Textile Tonne (Goods) 80-140

  6. The total water demand of a city is generally assessed on the basis of:


    1. maximum hourly demand
    2. maximum hourly demand + fire demand
    3. average daily demand + fire demand
    4. greater of (a) and (b)

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  7. What is the ratio of maximum daily demand and annual average daily demand?


    1. 1.5
    2. 1.8
    3. 2.0
    4. 2.7

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  8. What if the ratio between maximum hourly consumption and average hourly demand?


    1. 2.7
    2. 2.4
    3. 1.8
    4. 1.5

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  9. What is the ratio between maximum hourly consumption and annual average hourly demand?


    1. 1.5
    2. 1.8
    3. 2.4
    4. 2.7

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  10. Coincident draft in relation to water demand is based on:


    1. peak hourly demand
    2. maximum daily demand
    3. maximum daily demand + fire demand
    4. greater of (a) and (c)

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  11. The distribution system in water supplies is designed on the basis of:


    1. average daily demand
    2. peak hourly demand
    3. coincident draft
    4. greater of (b) and (c)

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  12. If the population of a city is 1.5 Lakh, and the average water consumption is 200 lpd, then the capacity of the pipe mains, should be:


    1. 54 MLD
    2. 45 MLD
    3. 81 MLD
    4. 72 MLD

    View Answer
    Answer: a
    Since average water consumption is given,
    $1.8 \times 200 \times 150000 = 54000000 LD = 54 MLD$

  13. If the average water consumption of a city is 300 LPCD and its population is 4 lakh, the maximum hourly draft of the maximum day will be:


    1. 120 MLD
    2. 216 MLD
    3. 324 MLD
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    Maximum hourly draft $=2.7 \times 300 \times 400000 = 324 MLD$

  14. The pipe mains carrying water from the source to the reservoir are designed for the:


    1. maximum daily draft
    2. average daily draft
    3. maximum hourly draft of the maximum day
    4. maximum weekly draft

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  15. Water losses in the water supply system are assumed as:


    1. 5 %
    2. 7.5 %
    3. 15 %
    4. 25 %

    View Answer
    Answer: c




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Building Material Questions (BM 11)

In this post, I will share some important questions which are frequently asked in competitive examinations such as SSC, UPSC and state PSCs.



  1. The turning of timber tissues to almost a dry powder is called ...


    1. dry rot
    2. wet rot
    3. rind gall
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  2. The disintegration of tissues of timber due to alternate wetting and drying is called ...


    1. shakes
    2. rind gall
    3. wet rot
    4. knots

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  3. Select the correct statement.


    1. heart shakes are wider at centre and diminish outwards
    2. star shakes are wider at the circumference and narrower at centre
    3. cup shakes separate annual rings
    4. all of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  4. After a branch has broken or cut off from the tree, a dark patch develops, called ...


    1. rind gall
    2. knots
    3. foxiness
    4. deadwood

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    When a branch is improperly cut off or removed, a peculiar curved swelling portion develops on that area, known as rind gall.

  5. If the timber has a red or yellow tinge or reddish brown stains or spots around the pith, then the defect is called ...


    1. burls
    2. callus
    3. druxiness
    4. foxiness

    View Answer
    Answer: d
    Burls: they are formed when a tree had received shock or injury in its young age. Due to such injury, the growth of a tree is completely upset and irregular projections appear on the body of timber.
    Callus: It is the soft tissue which covers the wound of a tree
    Druxiness: White decayed spots which are concealed by healthy wood.

  6. Select the incorrect statement.


    1. A bow is a curvature of the timber in the direction of its length.
    2. Cup is a curvature in the transverse direction of the timber.
    3. When a piece of timber has twisted out of shape it is said to be collapsed.
    4. A check is a crack which separates fibres of wood due to rapid drying.

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    When a piece of timber has twisted out of shape it is said to be wrapped.
    Collapse: Due to uneven shrinkage, the wood sometimes flattens during drying.

  7. Consider the following methods of preservation of timber and arrange them in increasing order of their effectiveness.


    1. dipping
    2. pressure application
    3. open tank application
    4. brush application

    1. 1,3,4,2
    2. 4,1,3,2
    3. 1,2,3,4
    4. 2,3,4,1

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  8. To make timber fire resistance ...


    1. soak it in ammonium sulphate
    2. coat it with tar paint
    3. season it well
    4. pump creosote oil into the timber

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  9. The strength of timber is maximum when the load is applied ...


    1. inclined at $45^\circ$ to grains
    2. perpendicular to grains
    3. parallel to grains
    4. inclined at $60^\circ$ to grains

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  10. The expansion and shrinkage of plywoods are comparatively very low as ...


    1. they are held in position by adhesives
    2. they are glued under pressure
    3. piles are placed at right angle to each other
    4. they are prepared from veneers

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    The cross binding and odd numbers of piles make the plywood of less shrinkage and the shrinkage stresses are symmetrical about the middle ply which reduces the warping tendency.

  11. Wood is impregnated with creosote oil in order to ...


    1. change its colour
    2. protect against termites
    3. protect the annular layers
    4. fill up the pores

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  12. Timber is ...


    1. isotropic
    2. anisotropic
    3. homogeneous
    4. heterogeneous

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  13. What is the modulus of elasticity of group A timber in $\times 10^3 N/mm^2$?


    1. greater than 12.6
    2. 9.8 to 12.6
    3. 5.6 to 9.8
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: a
    As per IS 883, timber is classified in 3 groups.
    Group A: elasticity greater than $12.6 \times 10^3 N/mm^2$
    Group B: elasticity in between $9.8 \times 10^3 N/mm^2$ and $12.6 \times 10^3 N/mm^2$
    Group C: elasticity in between $5.6 \times 10^3 N/mm^2$ and $9.8 \times 10^3 N/mm^2$





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Building Construction Questions (BC8)

In this post, I will share some important questions which are frequently asked in competitive examinations such as SSC, UPSC and state PSCs.


  1. The supporting member immediately below the floorboards is called ...


    1. bridging joists
    2. underlayer
    3. girder
    4. screeds

    View Answer
    Answer: a
    The horizontal structural members placed along shortest span immediately below the floor topping are termed as bridging joist.
    They are used as main supporting members in Timber floors having single joist floor system.

  2. Why is cement concrete floor constructed in panels?


    1. to save the material
    2. for architectural purpose
    3. to prevent the development of cracks
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  3. What is the thickness of the topping laid in a single layer in a bonded CC floor finished over the ground?


    1. 20 mm
    2. 25 mm
    3. 30 mm
    4. 40 mm

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    As per IS 2571, fig 2 (2A), the thickness of the topping is 25 mm.

  4. What is the proportion of cement concrete used in a base course in a monolithic finish concrete floor?


    1. 1:2:4
    2. 1:1.5:3
    3. 1:3:6
    4. 1:4:8

    View Answer
    Answer: d
    As per IS 2571, table-3, it is 1:4:8

  5. If the size of the chips to be used in Terrazzo flooring is 7 to 10 mm, what is the minimum thickness of the topping?


    1. 15 mm
    2. 12 mm
    3. 9 mm
    4. 6 mm

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    As per IS 2114, Cl 5.2, the minimum thickness of the topping will be 12 mm when the size of the chips is 7 to 10 mm.

  6. The combined thickness of underlayer and topping of a terrazzo floor shall not less than ...


    1. 30 mm
    2. 40 mm
    3. 50 mm
    4. 60 mm

    View Answer
    Answer: a
    As per IS 2114, Cl 5.2, it should not be less than 30 mm.

  7. What is used for the grinding of terrazzo floor?


    1. diamond
    2. aluminium oxide
    3. carborundum stone
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    As per IS 2114, Cl 11.3, carborundum stone is used for grinding.

  8. Which of the following is sprinkled over the surface after the final grinding of terrazzo floor?


    1. oxalic acid
    2. acetic acid
    3. hydrofluoric acid
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: a
    As per IS 2114, Cl 11.3.8, oxalic acid is used.

  9. In theatres, which of the following floors is suitable?


    1. Terrazzo floor
    2. Cement Concrete floor
    3. Cork floor
    4. Asphalt floor

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  10. What is the maximum centre to centre span between bridging joists in case of single joisted timber floor for ground floor?


    1. 2.5 m
    2. 3 m
    3. 3.5 m
    4. 4 m

    View Answer
    Answer: 3
    As per IS 3670, Cl 8.1, the maximum centre to centre span between bridging joists in case of single joisted timber floor for ground floor is 3 m.
    As per IS 3670, Cl 8.1.1 (a), the maximum centre to centre span between bridging joists in case of single joisted timber floor for upper floor is 4 m.

  11. In a single joisted timber floor, maximum deflection is ____ of the span due to floor loading.


    1. 1/300
    2. 1/320
    3. 1/340
    4. 1/360

    View Answer
    Answer: d
    As per IS 3670, Cl 8.1, it is 1/360 of the span.

  12. Which of the following is correct?


    1. Double joisted timber floor is more rigid than the single joisted floor.
    2. Double joisted timber floor reduces the headroom.
    3. Single joisted timber floors are cheaper than double joisted timber floor.
    4. All of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  13. The rise in the arch of a jack arch floor is _____ of the span.


    1. 1/4 to 1/6
    2. 1/6 to 1/8
    3. 1/8 to 1/10
    4. 1/10 to 1/12

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    As per IS 2118, Cl 5.2.3, the rise is 1/6 to 1/8 of the span.

  14. The maximum deflection of the joists of jack arch floor should not exceed ______ of the span.


    1. 1/360
    2. 1/400
    3. 1/480
    4. 1/520

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    As per IS 2118, Cl 5.2.2, the maximum allowable deflection is 1/480 of the span.





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Building Material Questions (BM 10)

In this post, I will share some important questions which are frequently asked in competitive examinations such as SSC, UPSC and state PSCs.



  1. Which of the following is a deciduous tree?


    1. Deodar
    2. Chir
    3. Teak
    4. Canes

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    Deodar and chir are conifers

  2. Which of the following is incorrect about exogenous trees?


    1. They have successive annual rings
    2. They grow inward
    3. A variety of exogenous trees shed their leaves while the other does not
    4. None of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    Exogenous trees grow outward.

  3. Which of the following tree has a natural resistance to the attack of white ants?


    1. Teak
    2. Babul
    3. Chir
    4. Mango

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  4. Which of the following pairs has one conifer and one deciduous tree?


    1. Pine and Deodar
    2. Sal and Teak
    3. Shishum and Mahogany
    4. Kail and Babul

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  5. The part of the log of a timber inside the bark which contains living cells is called _____.


    1. Pith
    2. Sapwood
    3. Cambium Layer
    4. Heartwood

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  6. The thin fibrous tissues which extend radially from cambium layer towards the pith is called ______.


    1. Medullary rays
    2. Annual rings
    3. Either (a) and (b)
    4. None of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: a
    Annual rings are approximately concentric innumerable rings in the log of a timber.

  7. Which of the following indicates the age of the timber?


    1. Number of medullary rays
    2. Number of Annual rings
    3. The thickness of the sapwood
    4. The thickness of the heartwood

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    Just by counting the number of the annual rings one can know the age of a log of timber in years.

  8. Which of the following sawing methods produces minimum wastage?


    1. Ordinary sawing
    2. Tangential sawing
    3. Quarter sawing
    4. Radial sawing

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  9. Which of the following radial sawing methods produces maximum waste?




    1. a
    2. b
    3. c
    4. d

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  10. In the method of tangential sawing ...


    1. Sawing is done tangentially to medullary rays
    2. Sawing is done tangentially to annual rings
    3. Sawing is done parallel to medullary rings
    4. None of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  11. A piece of timber whose thickness is less than 5 cm and width is more than 5 cm is called ...


    1. Batten
    2. Board
    3. Plank
    4. Strip

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    The dimensions of a Batten does not exceed 5 cm either in width or in thickness.
    A board has a thickness of less than 5 cm and width 10 cm or more.
    A strip has a  cannot thickness of less than 5 cm and width less than 10 cm.

  12. Seasoning of timbers is done ...


    1. To improve strength
    2. To reduce sap
    3. To reduce weight
    4. To fix the dimensions

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  13. Why air seasoning is not recommended?


    1. It is a very slow process
    2. It requires a large area
    3. With this method, the moisture content can not be reduced less than 15 to 18 %.
    4. All of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  14. What is the range of moisture content of timber used as structural elements?


    1. 5 to 12%
    2. 12 to 20%
    3. 10 to 16%
    4. 10 to 20%

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    As per IS 883, Table-2, for structural elements the range of moisture content is 12 to 20% and for doors and windows it is 10 to 16%.





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Building Material Questions (BM9)

In this post, I will share some important questions which are frequently asked in competitive examinations such as SSC, UPSC and state PSCs.



  1. Select the incorrect statement.


    1. Fly ash reduces permeability
    2. Curing period for fly ash concrete is less.
    3. Fly ash increases density of concrete
    4. Fly ash decreases expansion due to alkali-aggregate reaction

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    Curing period of fly ash concrete should be longer as pozzolanic reaction can only proceed in the presence of water. Enough water should be available for a long time.

  2. The use of ground granulated blast furnace slag in concrete increases ...


    1. heat of hydration
    2. permeability
    3. resistance to corrosion of reinforcement bars
    4. cement content

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    It reduces the heat of hydration, cement content and permeability and increases resistance to chemical attack and corrosion of reinforcement bars and improves workability and strength.

  3. Which of the following is correct?


    1. Rich concrete increases workability
    2. Angular aggregate increases workability
    3. Small aggregates will give higher workability
    4. All are correct

    View Answer
    Answer: a
    Rich concrete means lower aggregate/cement ratio, hence less matrix will be required to lubricate the aggregate.
    Round aggregate increases workability
    Small aggregate will have high surface area and hence more amount of matrix will be required to lubricate the aggregate.

  4. The dimensions (bottom diameter, top diameter and height) of a slump cone are ... mm


    1. 200,150,300
    2. 300,200,300
    3. 200,100,400
    4. 200,100,300

    View Answer
    Answer: d
    As per IS 1199, the dimensions of bottom diameter, top diameter and height of a slump cone are 200,100 and 300 mm respectively.

  5. When concrete subsides from only one side in a slump test then the slump is called ...


    1. True slump
    2. Shear slump
    3. Collapse slump
    4. Zero slump

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  6. In how many layers a slump cone is filled?


    1. 2
    2. 3
    3. 4
    4. 5

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    As per IS 1199, a slump cone is filled by 4 layers of concrete.

  7. Segregation of concrete is ...


    1. Separation of coarse aggregate from rest of the ingredients of concrete
    2. Separation of cement matrix from rest of the ingredients of concrete
    3. Both (a) and (b)
    4. None of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: a
    Option (b) is correct for bleeding.

  8. Bleeding in concrete is caused due to ...


    1. highly wet mix
    2. badly proportioned mix
    3. insufficiently mixed concrete
    4. All of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  9. How much extra cement is added when hand mixing is done?


    1. 5%
    2. 10%
    3. 15%
    4. 20%

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  10. Which of the following is never measured in volume?


    1. Aggregates
    2. Cement
    3. Water
    4. None of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b






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Building Material Questions (BM8)

In this post, I will share some important questions which are frequently asked in competitive examinations such as SSC, UPSC and state PSCs.



  1. What is the height of free fall of weight in aggregate impact value test?


    1. 350 mm
    2. 380 mm
    3. 400 mm
    4. 450 mm

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    As per IS: 2386 Part 4, free fall is 380 mm

  2. Which of the following properties is determined by aggregate impact value test?


    1. Crushing Strength
    2. Toughness
    3. Hardness
    4. Soundness

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  3. After abrasion test, if the loss in weight of aggregate is 18 gram. What will be the hardness of the sample?


    1. 20
    2. 13
    3. 14
    4. 17

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    $Hardness = 20-\frac{\text{Loss in gram}}{3}=20-\frac{18}{3}=14$

  4. What is the weight of the abrasive charge used in Log Angeles Abrasion Test?


    1. 330 to 400 gram
    2. 350 to 430 gram
    3. 390 to 445 gram
    4. 400 to 480 gram

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    As per IS: 2386 Part 4, the weight of abrasive charge is 390 to 445 gram and diameter is approximately 48 mm

  5. If the grade of aggregate used in Abrasion test is "E", the number of resolutions to be given is


    1. 500
    2. 1000
    3. 1500
    4. 2000

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    As per IS: 2386 Part 4, for grade A, B, C and D, the number of resolutions is 500 and for grade E, F and G, the number of resolutions is 1000.

  6. For aggregate to be used in concrete, the percentage wear should not be more than ____ percent.


    1. 13
    2. 16
    3. 19
    4. 21

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  7. The pH of the water to be used in concrete ________.


    1. shall be less than 6
    2. shall not be less than 6
    3. shall be less than 8
    4. shall not be less than 8

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    As per IS: 456: 2000, the pH of water shall not be less than 6.

  8. Plasticizers ...


    1. get absorbed on the cement particles.
    2. increase the inter-particle friction
    3. reduces the surface tension of water
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    Plasticizers get ADSORBED on the cement particle and cement particles get deflocculated and dispersed. Thus the mix fluidifies. In dispersed condition, there is water between cement particles which REDUCES the inter-particle friction.

  9. Due to the use of Plasticizers, the reduction in water is _______.


    1. 5 to 10 %
    2. 5 to 15 %
    3. 10 to 15 %
    4. 15 to 20 %

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  10. Which of the following is used to test the compatibility of superplasticizers and cement?


    1. Marsh cone test
    2. Mini slump test
    3. Flow table test
    4. All of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: d
    Marsh cone test gives better results.

  11. The rate of slump loss of  superplasticized concrete will be ______ than that of unplasticized concrete.


    1. less
    2. little more
    3. much more
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  12. The effect of plasticizers on strength of concrete is to ...


    1. increase it
    2. decrease it
    3. no effect
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: a
    If plasticizers which are compatible with the cement are used in right quantity, will decrease the w/c ratio and increase the strength of concrete.

  13. Common sugar is used in concrete as a/an ...


    1. accelerator
    2. retarder
    3. air entrainer
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    Common sugar is a retarding agent. At normal temperatures, an addition of sugar 0.05 to 0.10 % have little effect on the rate of hydration but if the quantity is increased to 0.2 %, it may delay the final set for 72 hours or more.

  14. Which of the following is correct regarding accelerators?


    1. It increases the overall strength of concrete
    2. It increases the rate of early strength development of concrete
    3. It increases the time period of curing
    4. none of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b





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Building Material Questions (BM7)

In this post, I will share some important questions which are frequently asked in competitive examinations such as SSC, UPSC and state PSCs.



  1. If the angularity number is ZERO, what will be the percentage of the solid volume of the aggregate?


    1. 44
    2. 56
    3. 67
    4. None of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    The aggregates which are suitable for making the concrete may have angularity number from ZERO to 11. Determination of Angularity Number is done as per IS 2386 part 1:1963

  2. Which of the following expression is correct?


    1. ${f}_{A}=\frac{3\times {f}_{H}}{20}+1.0$
    2. ${f}_{H}=\frac{3\times {f}_{A}}{20}+1.0$
    3. ${f}_{A}=\frac{6\times {f}_{H}}{20}+1.0$
    4. None of the above

    Where, ${f}_{A}=\text{Angularity Index}$
    ${f}_{H}=\text{Angularity Number}$


    View Answer
    Answer: a The expression was suggested by Murdock

  3. Which of the following is the formula to calculate angularity number?


    1. $67-\frac{100\times{C}}{W \times{G}}$
    2. $67-\frac{100\times{W}}{C \times{G}}$
    3. $67-\frac{C}{100\times {W} \times{G}}$
    4. None of the above

    Where, ${C}=\text{Weight of water, gram}$
    ${W}=\text{Mean weight of aggregate, gram}$
    ${G}=\text{Specific Gravity of Aggregate}$


    View Answer
    Answer: b
    This expression is given in IS: 2386-Part 1: 1963

  4. Which of the following aggregate has granular texture?


    1. Slate
    2. Sandstone
    3. Granite
    4. Dolerite

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    Slate has a smooth texture
    Granite and Dolerite have crystalline texture.

  5. How will the properties of concrete get affected if fine or coarse aggregates contains an excessive amount of silt and clay?


    1. Shrinkage will increase
    2. Permeability will increase
    3. Poor bond
    4. All of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: d

  6. Colorimetric Test is performed to determine the level of which of the following impurities in aggregates?


    1. Organic impurities
    2. Silt and clay
    3. Salts
    4. Iron Pyrites

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  7. What is the average percentage loss of weight in aggregates after 10 cycles when Magnesium sulphate is used?


    1. 12
    2. 18
    3. 24
    4. 28

    View Answer
    Answer: b

  8. What is the ideal temperature range for an alkali-aggregate reaction?


    1. $10-38^\circ C$
    2. $12-45^\circ C$
    3. $16-30^\circ C$
    4. $20-40^\circ C$

    View Answer
    Answer: a

  9. Which of the following sieves is not used in sieve analysis?


    1. 63 mm
    2. 50 mm
    3. 15 mm
    4. 2.36 mm

    View Answer
    Answer: c
    As per IS:2386 Part 1:1963, following sieves are used in sieve analysis:
    63, 50, 40 or 31.5, 25, 20 or 16, 12.5, 10, 6.3, 4.75 and 2.36. [All are in mm]

  10. If the Fineness Modulus of sand is greater than 3.2, it will be ______ for making satisfactory concrete.


    1. Perfect
    2. Suitable
    3. Unsuitable
    4. Can not say

    View Answer
    Answer: c

  11. If the Fineness Modulus is 2.5, the sand is classified as


    1. Fine Sand
    2. Medium Sand
    3. Coarse Sand
    4. None of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: a
    Fine Sand - 2.2 - 2.6
    Medium Sand - 2.6 - 2.9
    Coarse Sand - 2.9 - 3.2

  12. Fine aggregate is divided into ____ grading zones.


    1. 3
    2. 4
    3. 5
    4. 6

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    As per IS: 383: 2016 Fine aggregates are divided into 4 grading zones.

  13. The Elongation index is not applicable to sizes smaller than _____.


    1. 5.5 mm
    2. 6.3 mm
    3. 7.3 mm
    4. None of the above

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    Both Flakiness Index and Elongation Index are not applicable to sizes smaller than 6.3 mm.

  14. To perform the crushing test on aggregates, aggregates are


    1. Passed through 10 mm sieve and retained on 4.75 mm sieve
    2. Passed through 12.5 mm sieve and retained on 10 mm sieve
    3. Passed through 20 mm sieve and retained on 16 mm sieve
    4. Passed through 16 mm sieve and retained on 12.5 mm sieve

    View Answer
    Answer: b
    This test is performed as per IS: 2386 Part 4: 1963

  15. When aggregates are to be used in building construction, crushing value should not exceed _____ percent.


    1. 30
    2. 35
    3. 40
    4. 45

    View Answer
    Answer: d
    30% for aggregates to be used in wearing surfaces.





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